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Author Topic: [SOLVED] Renting a house in 1870/80.  (Read 1188 times)
CPT_J_Percell
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« on: September 15, 2013, 11:58:03 am »

Call me stupid but did home owners rent out there homes in the 1870/1880s?
« Last Edit: September 15, 2013, 08:17:31 pm by CPT_J_Percell » Logged

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« Reply #1 on: September 15, 2013, 12:06:28 pm »

I believe that it was the norm in the 19th century, in British cities at least, for people to rent their homes from land owners and developers.  The Bournville estate in Birmingham, for example, was owned by the Cadbury family and let to their factory workers.  The same can be applied to the Darby faily in Coalbrookdale.     
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« Reply #2 on: September 15, 2013, 01:48:51 pm »

Boarding houses would have been very common.
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Ada Thorold
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« Reply #3 on: September 15, 2013, 04:13:23 pm »

I believe that it was the norm in the 19th century, in British cities at least, for people to rent their homes from land owners and developers.  The Bournville estate in Birmingham, for example, was owned by the Cadbury family and let to their factory workers.  The same can be applied to the Darby faily in Coalbrookdale.     

My mother recently bought a house in Bournville. As part of the purchase she was sent a copy of the original deed, complete with Mr Cadbury's signature. It was quite fascinating.

~A~
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frances
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« Reply #4 on: September 15, 2013, 06:24:44 pm »

If you were rich you would own a country estate and maybe rent a London house for the 'season'.  If you were poor you would rent your room by the week; many working people rented a room or even just a bed by the night as their income was made on a daily basis.

So it really depends on why you want to know.  Are you writing a book?
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CPT_J_Percell
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« Reply #5 on: September 15, 2013, 07:51:09 pm »

My books MC owns a flat in Bristol but has been asked to moved back to look after a country house. Would he put up the flat for rent?
That is what I should have asked.
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« Reply #6 on: September 15, 2013, 08:08:57 pm »

Call me stupid but did home owners rent out there homes in the 1870/1880s?


OK I'm assuming you mean 'did property owners act as landlords?' rather than 'did people rent their homes (tenants)?'.


The answer is yes. People would commonly rent out any houses and flats they owned, and also rooms, cellars, space on the stair landing (really), and hallways in their own homes to anyone who could pay. Typically if they *owned* a large home, they wouldn't live there while renting it out - they would be considered quite well-to-do. Smaller properties in working class areas may have been shared between an owner and a singe tenant, though again this wouldn't be as common, it was quite rare to own your own home then (less than 15%) - so if you had the money to buy, you probably don't need a tenant... However if a property owner had to move for some reason, it would be likely they would rent the property rather than sell - though there would be logistical issues with receiving the rent money if they lived too far away, though large banks with branches in the area would be able to accommodate.

Usually it was people (tenants) subletting spare space in their rented  property, and this was common in low income homes, especially in the poor / slum areas. In the slums it was not uncommon to find 15 people to one room (several families), even single steps on the stairs would be rented out in the worst cases. And yes, it was as cramped, filthy, smelly and unhygienic as it sounds...

SS
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CPT_J_Percell
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« Reply #7 on: September 15, 2013, 08:17:10 pm »

Thanks, Just making sure that small things like that are factual and not fictitious.

Thank you everyone for taking the time to answer.
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Eladrial
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« Reply #8 on: October 02, 2013, 04:53:26 pm »

As somebody else stated the more common rented accomadation was rooms not whole house's unless your was well off. Plus you had workhouse's you worked to pay your rent if that counts?
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